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Let's say, we have a loop of wire of length \$L>0\$. Let's say, hypothetically, it is a loop of non-ideal wire. That means that the wire has a resistance per unit length \$ρ>0\$. Let's further assume that there is a changing magnetic flux through that loop of wire. Faraday's Law of Induction, as it is widely understood, dictates that a current will be induced in that loop of wire. Let's call that current \$I\$ (where \$I>0\$).

Now, for the sake of argument, let's divide that wire into infinitely many segments of infinitesimal length. Let each of those segments have length \$dl\$. That means that each segment will have resistance \$ρdl\$, and since each segment has the same current \$I\$ passing through it (KCL), the voltage drop across each segment should be \$Iρdl\$ (Ohm's Law).

Starting at any point in the loop of wire, we can sum up the voltage drop across each infinitesimal segment for the entire loop (the segments are in series):

\$\int\limits_{0}^{L}Iρdl=IρL>0V\$

Now, since we start at any point in the loop and come back around to the same point, that means that the voltage at that point (relative to itself) is both \$0V\$ (trivially) and \$IρL\$, which is a contradiction since we assumed that neither of \$I\$, \$ρ\$, and \$L\$ is \$0\$.

This is essentially a long way of saying that KVL finds itself contradicted. But I took this long way to avoid answers such as "KVL simply doesn't work with magnetic fluxes". But how can it not work? What did I do wrong in all those steps? Which assumption was incorrect?

nc404
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This is essentially a long way of saying that KVL finds itself contradicted.

Kirchhoff's Voltage Law is a law from circuit theory that is valid in the lumped circuit approximation. One of the requirements for the lumped circuit approximation is that there be no significant changing magnetic flux passing through the circuit. If this requirement is violated then we absolutely don't expect KVL to apply.

What did I do wrong in all those steps?

When you said, " since we start at any point in the loop and come back around to the same point, that means that the voltage at that point (relative to itself) is both 0 V (trivially) and ..." you have already assumed that the lumped circuit approximation is valid and that there are no changing magnetic fluxes through the loop.

You assumed KVL would apply in a circuit where it doesn't apply.

Which assumption was incorrect?

The assumption that there was no magnetic flux through the circuit being evaluated

But I took this long way to avoid answers such as "KVL simply doesn't work with magnetic fluxes".

You basically demonstrated the reason why KVL doesn't work in circuits with changing magnetic flux.

If you want a reason why KVL doesn't work in this scenario, then your logic is exactly that reason. It's because in this scenario the integral of the EMF around the loop is not zero but something that depends on the changing magnetic flux through the loop.

If you want to model this circuit within the context of the lumped circuit approximation and KVL, then you should treat each element of the loop not as a small resistor, but as a small section of the secondary of a transformer (with the primary being whatever is generating the magnetic flux through the loop). Then you have a term for the voltage across each element that won't sum to zero as you go around the loop and you won't get a contradiction.

The Photon
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  • I know that. But I don't see how you can have a voltage drop between a point and that exact same point. It makes no sense to me.
  • – nc404 Jul 27 '20 at 16:05
  • I never assumed KVL in my steps. I assumes FLI, KCL and Ohm's law (as I have annotated) but never KVL. – nc404 Jul 27 '20 at 16:06
  • @nc404, because in the presence of changing magnetic flux, you can't actually define the potential at any point in your circuit. – The Photon Jul 27 '20 at 16:06
  • I still don't get how a point can have a voltage difference with itself. – nc404 Jul 27 '20 at 16:06
  • @nc404, When you said " the voltage at that point (relative to itself) is both 0V (trivially) " you were using KVL to make that "trivial" assertion. – The Photon Jul 27 '20 at 16:07
  • Why not? Just define it relative to an arbitrary point. – nc404 Jul 27 '20 at 16:07
  • Because if you take an integral of EMF around a loop enclosing a changing magnetic flux and returning to the same point, you get a non-zero voltage (EMF, not potential difference) around that loop. Therefore if you take a different path from the arbitrary chosen point to your "point A" you might calculate different values for the potential at point A. Therefore there is no defined potential at point A. – The Photon Jul 27 '20 at 16:08
  • I see. So the statement "the voltage between a point and itself=0" is essentially KVL? Seems like it's simply a trivial statement. Doesn't KVL deal with loops? – nc404 Jul 27 '20 at 16:09
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    @nc404 It's not really a voltage. A voltage in the strict sense only makes sense in a conservative field where the path you take when integrating over the E-field doesn't change the result as long as start and end point are identical. This is not the case when you have a changing magnetic flux. – Felix S Jul 27 '20 at 16:10
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    At the very least, both your assertion (the voltage at that point (relative to itself) is 0V) and KVL depend on the potential being a well-defined quantity at every point, and that isn't true when there are changing magnetic fluxes around. – The Photon Jul 27 '20 at 16:10
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    @FelixS, be careful. "Voltage" can refer to either EMF or (quasi)electrostatic potential difference. The voltage around a loop cutting a changing magnetic field is an EMF but not a potential difference. (but we still can call it "voltage") – The Photon Jul 27 '20 at 16:12
  • @ThePhoton I understand. You're saying the electric field becomes a non-conservative force when changing magnetic fields interfere. – nc404 Jul 27 '20 at 16:14
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    @nc404, yes, that's another way to say it. – The Photon Jul 27 '20 at 16:15
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    @ThePhoton The thing is, a voltage is always between two points. And between two points around a loop with changing magnetic flux, we can assign an unlimited number of voltages to the circulation, because we could go around twice and get twice the voltage, and so on. Which is why I think the whole term of voltage only makes sense in a conservative field, and I think this is also the strict sense definition taught by Feynman right? – Felix S Jul 27 '20 at 16:21
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    @Felix, it's not true that "a voltage is always between two points". A potential difference (sometimes called a voltage) is measured between two points. An electromotive force (EMF) is also sometimes called a voltage and is measured on a specific path between two points, not on the two points alone. In OP's scenario the potential difference (voltage) is not defined, but the EMF (also voltage) is defined (and depends on the path taken around the loop). – The Photon Jul 27 '20 at 16:38
  • Voltage should be used in the general case, while potential difference should only be used when a potential function exists, ie when the field is irrotational. So, if the work per unit charge depends on the path between endpoints, we call it voltage. If it only happen to depends on the endpoints, then we can call it potential difference and there is one and only one voltage between two points. See https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/506590/can-two-voltmeters-connected-to-the-same-terminals-show-different-values-circui/507666#507666 – Sredni Vashtar Jul 28 '20 at 17:30