We’re considering an ideal opamp here; so does that mean that Vo is infinity ♾ * 0 (A * (V+ - V-))?
Thanks!
We’re considering an ideal opamp here; so does that mean that Vo is infinity ♾ * 0 (A * (V+ - V-))?
Thanks!
$$ V_0 = A(V_+ - V_-) $$
That's correct.
$$ V_+ = V_- $$
That's not correct. It's more like
$$ V_+ \text {almost} = V_- $$
The gain of the op-amp is typically so high that the output adjusts so that the negative feedback (which is what your question assumes) brings the inverting input to
$$ V_- = V_+ - \frac {V_O}{A} $$
which is very very close to, but not equal to V+.
Note also that they will only equal zero when the V+ input equals zero.