Some of you may be familiar with the unusual split scheme used for time-series data. In short, there is a saying that one should only consider a split where the training set comes prior to the testing set (in terms of index or timedate), as otherwise we essentially use future data to infer.
Namely, given the dataset $\mathcal{D}=\{(x_1,y_1),...,(x_n,y_n)\}$, a viable split may look like \begin{align} train=\{(x_1,y_1),...,(x_j,y_j)\}\subseteq\mathcal{D}\\ test=\{(x_{j+1},y_{j+1}),...,(x_k,y_k)\}\subseteq\mathcal{D} \end{align} for some $j\leq k\leq n$
My question is - are there some cases where random splitting is O.K in time series? Also, what is the main problem with random sampling?