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I'm trying to understand Boltzmann machines. Tutorials explain it with two formulas.

Logistic function for the probability of single units:

$$p(unit=1)=\frac{1}{1+e^{-\sum_{x}wx } }$$

and, when the machine is running, every state of the machine goes to the probability:

$$p(State= state\ with\ energy\ E_i )=\frac{e^{-E_i}}{\sum_i e^{-E_i}}$$

So, the state depends on the units, and then, if I understand correctly, the second formula is a consequence of the first.

So, how can it be the proof that the distribution of $p(state)$ is a consequence of $p(unit)$?

nbro
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volperossa
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