I have just read a short story ("The Disagreeable Man", by Henry Cecil) in which a dubious (to me) legal trick is used to con a small town out of a significant amount of money. I want to know if the story is legally plausible. Spoilers abound in what follows, though I've tried to keep them to a minimum.
Summary: a man, Basil, moves to a small town, and makes a point of being disagreeable to all the townspeople. He also runs up debts to several people in town, then refuses to pay, despite repeated court orders to do so. The day before the supposed final deadline to pay, he reports a robbery of his allegedly very valuable stamp collection. That night, at a "private" dinner party (I put "private" in quotes, because it is a small town, and basically all of the residents are present - though it does take place in a private home), several prominent citizens (a doctor, a vicar, a judge, ...) discuss what has happened and give voice to the assertion that he is committing insurance fraud as a way to cover his debts. Word of this conversation gets back to Basil. It later emerges that the stamp collection was not insured, effectively disproving the allegation of fraud. Basil then issues a writ to the men who had made the allegations, accusing them of slander. They are advised by legal counsel that the case is watertight, and they settle with Basil out of court for a large sum of money.
My question is, is the case against the townspeople watertight? Am I not allowed to assert that someone is committing a crime, if it is my belief that that is true? I have read up a bit on English defamation law, and I see that honest opinion (or 'fair comment') is a defense against slander accusations. Would that cover the case outlined above?
For what it's worth, the story is set in post-war Britain (circa 1950).